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The Breaking of Long [e:] or Fiachainn vs feuchainn <bial>
<sgial> <ian> <diag> <ciad> <sia>
<fiar> <fiach> <sgriach> <briag> <iadail>
So
what is it all about and is there a rule? Well, sort of, but first
of all let us depart into the foggy drizzle of celtic historical
linguistics and look at Common Gaelic, the ancestor of both modern Irish
and Gaelic. Common Gaelic had words which contained a long [eː] sound:
béal,
scéal, éan, déag, céad, sé, féar, féach, sgréach, bréag, éadail,
léim, béim, Séamas, céim and
léigh.
Most of these are still pronounced with a long [eː] in Irish dialects (except Munster Irish
which has things like
céad
[kʲiad̪̊] but Scottish Gaelic, obviously
thinking life was much too boring, did something more entertaining.
It "broke" the long vowel. No, actually there is sense behing it - we will spare you the full story and just tell you how to tell when to say [ia] and when not. Remember though that this is a rule of thumb in some ways - it once again depends to a certain degree on the dialect and even the individual speaker whether they break their [eː]'s or not. So if you DO have a friend who says *Siamas instead of Seumas ... put aside thoughts of sending us a virus and simply accept it as "one of those things". Here's
the rule: (C')___(C') > [eː]
and (C')___(C) > [ia] And then there is a tentative "rule": if a word is high register, meaning that it is generally not used in everyday conversation and is restricted to "high functions" such as church or poetry, the pronunciation tends to be [eː]. Words like beus [beːs] or ceusadh [kʲeːsəɣ], which are quite restricted in their use, tend to have [eː]. So
why do we spell it <eu> and not <èa> or even
<ia>? Because being as efficient as the GOC board, the users
of Common Gaelic hadn't quite worked out a standard spelling and so the
Irish ended up with the <éa> variant and the Scots with the
<eu>. On the other hand, if we switched to writing <ia> instead of <eu> in all cases, we'd have a small, new problem to contend with. Anyone guess what? Well, two actually. The first one is that most word which have historic <ia>, that is, <ia> has always been <ia> and is not derived from <eu> the second vowel is a schwa: [iə] e.g. iarr, siar etc. Words with <ia> that derive from é/eu on the other hand have a clear [a] vowel: [ia]. Point being? Well, if you write both <eu> and <ia> as <ia>, there is no way to tell from the spelling whether the correct pronunciation is [iə] or [ia]. Now, for a native speaker that is obviously no problem as he or she has fixed the correct sounds in their memory rather than the spelling, but it makes it even more tricky for learners. Also, even though some <eu> sounds have shifted in spelling to <ia>, they still form their genitives as if the were <eu> words: sgian > sgéin, fiadh > féidh etc. Knowing this can, incidentally help you pronounce words properly, that is, if a word has <ia> in the nominative and <éi> in the genitive, it will be pronounced [ia]. Once again, there is no perfect answer ... In any case, here's a rough map of Scotland showing you where the boundary between these two dialect areas lies:
This is merely and indication of where the majority of speakers break or don't break, a more detailed map shows that there speakers break there long /eː/'s to varying degrees:
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